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Was Appeasement justified?
Add your comments and opinions on whether the policy of appeasement followed by the British government in the 1930s was justifiable in the circumstances.
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In answer Susana, the Poles were suspicious the Soviets would occupy rather than protect their country - their fears were realised later with Nazi-Soviet Pact
Giving in to Germany's demands was the same thing as tattooing "I want to be bullied" on one's forehead and parading in front of the neighbourhood bullies.
Why didn't the Polish government want Soviet troops in Poland if war broke out, if they would be defending it?
Well, I think someone must have had some suspicion, but either ways Britain could/would do nothing but follow App. I'll have to say it was 'understandable'.
It was the only thing Britain could do at the time, but I really can't believe no-one had the SLIGHTEST suspicion of Hitler's true intentions.
Appeasment, looked at now, seems a stupid thing to do, but in those consequences it was the only possible thing to do, concerning Britian's concers in the world
'Appeasement' means 'giving in to a bully'. As Germany’s confidence rises and Britain wants to appease to try to avoid a war the only things she gains IS A WAR!
The policy of appeasement is only prolonging the inevitable war it is going to have to face sooner or later.
Appeasement would give Germany time to strengthen their armed forces. If Britain and France would not intervene over Czechoslovakia, unlikely they would take any action to defend other threatened countries. Naive policy - Hitler had made clear his aims to conquer Eastern Europe.
With the benefit of hindsight it is all too easy to criticise appeasement, but given Britain's imperial concerns and state of unreadiness it is understandable.